Blood cultures are pending. Stool occult blood test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. aPTT mixing study. B. Direct antiglubulin (Coombs) test. C. Intravenous immune globulin. ... D. Plasma exchange. E. Platelet antibody test. The correct answer is D: Plasma exchange.
A 29-year-old woman is evaluated for a petechial rash of the lower extremities of 3 weeks' duration. The patient reports no bleeding problems except for recent, occasional bleeding from her gums after brushing. Physician examination reveals
Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test:. Negative. A bone marrow aspiration reveals a “dry tap.” A peripheral blood smear and bone marrow biopsy are shown.
A 34-year-old woman is evaluated for sharp intermittent pleuritic chest pain that has persisted for 1 week. The pain is worse when she lies down in the supine position. She has had no fever, chills, cough, or weight loss. She had acute viral
Based upon a physical exam and chest radiograph, what is the most likely diagnosis?.
Test Yourself MKSAP image 2010, American College of Physicians, Medical Knowledge Self-Assessment Program (MKSAP.
The left panel of this angiography shows thrombosis of the right carotid artery such as might occur in a patient who presents to the emergency department with an acute symptomatic ischemic stroke. The right panel demonstrates the return of vascular
A 64-year-old woman is evaluated for a 6-week history of dyspnea, dry cough, fever, chills, night sweats, and fatigue, which have not responded to treatment with azithromycin and levofloxacin; she has lost 2.2 kg (5 lb) during that time. Based upon
A 59-year-old man is evaluated for a 4-day history of progressive worsening of fatigue, forgetfulness, constipation, excessive thirst and increased urination. He has no pain. Based upon the findings of a physical exam and lab results, what is the