A 32-year-old man comes to the office after being told at a health fair screening that he had blood in his urine.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next? ... The best initial test is a barium esophagram, which will identify the diverticulum.
ACP Internist has brought back its MKSAP quiz. This popular feature was so heavily requested by our readers that we're restoring it in our print edition and ACP Internist Weekly e-mail updates.
A 28-year-old man is evaluated for a 3-week history of “stuffiness,” decreased hearing, and discomfort in his left ear. He has no other symptoms and otherwise feels well except for mild nasal congestion that he attributes to seasonal allergies.
A 75-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital 4 hours after onset of chest pain with findings of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. She was taken emergently to the catheterization laboratory and underwent emergency percutaneous coronary
Home measurement of high blood pressure overcomes variability inherent in office measurements, delivers better assessment of systolic pressure (and hence, of possible cardiovascular events) and offers a better chance of discontinuing drug therapy.
9. /L). Absolute neutrophil count:. 400/µL (0.4 10. 9. /L). Direct Coombs (antiglobulin) test:.
A 62-year-old woman is evaluated for a 4-month history of decreased exercise tolerance, joint stiffness, mild weakness, and a rash on her hands. She has noted increasing difficulty carrying heavy objects and feels exhausted after climbing stairs.
C. HLA B27 testing. D. Nucleic acid amplification urine test for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. ... The correct answer is D: Nucleic acid amplification urine test for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Blood cultures are pending. Stool occult blood test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?