Chest radiographs are shown. Test Yourself MKSAP images 2010, American College of Physicians, Medical Knowledge Self-Assessment Program (MKSAP.
Absolute neutrophil count:. 400/µL (0.4 10. 9. /L). Direct Coombs (antiglobulin) test:.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?.
A 55-year-old white man has a several-year history of epigastric pain and daily heartburn without dysphagia or weight loss.
A 68-year-old man was admitted to the hospital 3 days ago for a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction and underwent cardiac catheterization via the right groin. Today, the patient reports pain in his left toes and diffuse soreness in the left calf.
A 62-year-old man is evaluated for an asymptomiatic nodule on his should that has been present for more than 1 year. Skin findings are shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?.
A 29-year-old woman is evaluated for a petechial rash of the lower extremities of 3 weeks' duration. The patient reports no bleeding problems except for recent, occasional bleeding from her gums after brushing. Physician examination reveals
A 71-year-old man presents for a routine visit. He has a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation.
A recent HIV test was negative. He has used smokeless tobacco for 14 years.
Pseudothrombocytopenia is a laboratory artifact in which platelets drawn into an ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)-anticoagulated test tube clump and fail to be counted accurately by the automated counter, resulting in a