A radiograph of the hand is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next? ... Measurement of transferrin saturation is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next in this patient.
CT is readily available, can be quickly performed, and is the test of choice to rule out intracerebral hemorrhage, subarachnoid bleeding, and hydrocephalus, which may require rapid neurosurgical intervention. ... CT of the head without contrast is the
A. aPTT mixing study. B. Direct antiglubulin (Coombs) test. C. Intravenous immune globulin. ... D. Plasma exchange. E. Platelet antibody test. The correct answer is D: Plasma exchange.
A 48-year-old man is evaluated for a 7-year history of spreading plaques associated with dry, itchy skin. He has no other significant medical history and takes no medications. Following a physical exam and chest radiograph, what is the most
Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test:. Negative. A bone marrow aspiration reveals a “dry tap.” A peripheral blood smear and bone marrow biopsy are shown.
A recent HIV test was negative. He has used smokeless tobacco for 14 years.
A 65-year-old man is evaluated because of painless neck swelling and difficulty swallowing that has progressively worsened over the last year. He does not have hoarseness, but he feels as though his voice is not as strong as it was in the past.
B. Exercise treadmill stress test. C. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator placement. D. Tilt-table test. ... An exercise treadmill stress test can be valuable for identifying an exercise-induced arrhythmia.
A 62-year-old woman is evaluated for multiple areas of scaling and rough skin on her forehead and cheeks, the backs of her hands, and forearms. These areas are painless but persist despite application of moisturizer. She is in good overall health
Absolute neutrophil count:. 400/µL (0.4 10. 9. /L). Direct Coombs (antiglobulin) test:.